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During Phase 1, the clinician:
Three primary themes for interweaves are:
When targeting a process phobia, the clinician must address all the pertinent aspects of the experience, including decision-making and anticipatory anxiety.
Which of the following statements is false about clusters?
Which of the following would be an appropriate strategy for assisting a client in maintaining Dual Attention during an intense emotional response:
Following the death of a loved one, a person may first experience emotional shock accompanied by numbing. In these cases, psychological first aid, rather than EMDR processing, is recommended at this stage.
Shapiro (2018) states that screening for dissociative disorders should be done by all EMDR clinicians before starting reprocessing and that treating individuals who meet criteria for DID requires additional training.
Shapiro (2018) suggests that when reprocessing effects cease for two consecutive sets clinicians should consider:
Which of the following are appropriate statements regarding the use of EMDR therapy with couples?
According to Shapiro, The Dissociative Experiences Scale (DES-II) should be administered during Phase One, as an initial screening for dissociation. Further exploration may be warranted.
Shapiro (2018) states that, when reprocessing is not progressing, after changing the nature or type of bilateral stimulation, the clinician should next consider shifting attention to:
Which of the following is true of EMD?
EMDR (Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing) therapy was first called EMD (Eye Movement Desensitization).
Shapiro (2018) suggests the Safe/Calm place exercise is recommended as part of the preparation phase before starting reprocessing because:
Feeder memories are earlier memories that may contribute to dysfunction and block reprocessing of it.
Which of the following is the first step in the Recent Event Protocol?
Research Indicates that EMDR processing causes a specific somatic de-arousal response, possibly resulting from central cortical and subcortical changes associated with eye movements and driven by autonomic activity.
Which of the following is true about Resource Development and Installation?
When processing the initial target is unsuccessful, the clinician should consider inquiring about negative beliefs that are blocking progress.
For many clients with complex PTSD, it is preferable to begin processing by first targeting recent, adult-onset traumatic experiences or the present disturbing situations or triggers.
Shapiro (2018) states that the principles of exposure therapy do not predict or explain EMDR’s effects since both Rachman’s (1978) and Foa and Kozak’s (1986) models of information processing indicate that silence, distractions, and brief presentations would impede processing and vivid, long and repeated presentation would promote processing.
It is essential that the clinician clearly inform the client of the possibility for emotional disturbance during and after EMDR processing sessions.
When beginning the Installation Phase, the first question to ask is:
The Adaptive Information Processing (AIP) model posits:
When selecting an image during Assessment Phase, the clinician should ask:
When checking the VOC during Installation Phase, say:
In EMDR therapy, pathology is viewed in terms of maladaptive memory networks which have not been fully reprocessed and continue to be held in a state-specific form giving rise to maladaptive perceptions, behaviors, beliefs and attitudes.
Which of the following statements is true of the Negative Cognition (NC)?
Regarding the Body Scan Phase, Shapiro (2018) states that:
Which of the Mechanisms of Action has not been strongly supported as an explanation for EMDR therapy?
What is the Validity of Cognition scale range (VoC)?
An adequate closure procedure should be established prior to a treatment session. Clinicians should help clients construct a safe and/or calm place in their imagination to use during closure.
One way in which EMDR therapy differs from Cognitive Behavioral therapy is no homework is required for EMDR to be effective.
In the Assessment phase, when identifying the “Emotion” all the following are true except:
In the Reevaluation Phase the clinician is paying attention to which of the following:
The three-pronged protocol refers to which of the following:
The letter “D” in “SUD scale” stands for:
The following statements are true for the treatment of children, except:
The positive/future template involves applying bilateral stimulation while a client runs through the sequence of a challenging past experience until there is no longer a disturbance associated with it.
When beginning the Desensitization Phase, clinician should ask the client to notice:
Because of the potential of EMDR for rapid destabilization, there are many client factors to consider prior to beginning EMDR. Which of the following is not a factor?
Shapiro states that history-taking should:
When starting each subsequent set of bilateral dual attention stimulation in the Desensitization Phase, after the first set it is advisable for the clinician to:
Which of the following are true of working with military personnel and veterans:
So far, no medications appear to completely block EMDR processing, although benzodiazepines have been reported to reduce treatment efficacy with some clients.
Shapiro states that during the Desensitization Phase the clinician should recheck the SUD level:
Looking at addiction through the lens or the AIP, which of the following are not true:
Shapiro (2018) states that because EMDR therapy has been shown to be effective and efficient, it is not necessary to take steps to test whether clients can manage moderate to high levels of emotional disturbance and to practice self-control procedures.
The cognitive interweave is a strategy that is used during reprocessing:
When addressing current anxiety with EMDR therapy, the clinician asks the client to identify which of the following: